Thursday, October 9, 2008
Advance Routing Protocols
1. Which of the following is false concerning OSPF?
A. It provides a loop-free topology.
B. It is a classful protocol and allows for a hierarchical design.
C. It requires more memory and processing cycles than distance vector protocols.
D. It is complex to configure and difficult to troubleshoot.
Answer: B
OSPF is a classless, not a classful protocol.
A, C, and D are true concerning OSPF.
2. The OSPF process ID is __________.
A. Locally significant and is the router ID
B. Globally significant and must be configured on every router
C. Locally significant
D. OSPF doesn’t use a process ID, but an AS number
Answer: C
The OSPF process ID is locally significant.
A is not true, because the router ID is based on the highest IP address of a loopback or active interface. B is not true, because it is locally significant. D is not true, because OSPF requires a process ID to be configured.
3. Enter the OSPF command to include all of its interfaces in area 0: __________.
A. Network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. Net 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
c. N/W all networks wild card marsk area null
Answer: A
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0.
4. OSPF uses __________ as a metric.
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Cost
D. Hop count
Answer: C
OSPF uses bandwidth as a metric.
A is used to compute the cost, which is the inverse of the bandwidth. B is used by IGRP and EIGRP. D is used by RIP.
5. An OSPF’s router ID is based on __________.
A. The lowest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its active interfaces
B. The highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the highest IP address on its active interfaces
C. The highest IP address on its active interfaces, if configured, or the highest IP address on its loopback interfaces
D. The lowest IP address on its active interfaces, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its loopback interfaces
Answer: B
An OSPF’s router ID is based on the highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the highest IP address on its active interfaces.
A is incorrect because specifies lowest. C is incorrect because the loopback is used first, if configured. D is incorrect because the loopback is checked first.
6. OSPF hellos are sent every __________ seconds on a multi-access medium.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 40
Answer: B
OSPF hellos are sent every ten seconds.
D is the dead interval timer, and A and C are incorrect timers.
7. Enter the OSPF command to view all of a router’s neighbors: __________.
A. show ip ospf neighbors
B. show ip ospf interfaces
C. show ip ospf
Answer: A
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 show ip ospf neighbor.
8. OSPF supports a ________-layer hierarchical design.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Multi
Answer: B
OSPF supports a two-layer hierarchical design: the backbone (area 0) and areas off of the backbone.
A is incorrect because this is a flat design. C is incorrect because only two layers are supported. D is true, but B is more correct.
9. When examining the IP routing table, an EIGRP route will be shown as what letter?
A. I
B. E
C. O
D. D
Answer: D
A D in the routing table indicates an EIGRP route.
A indicates an IGRP route. B indicates an EGP route. C is an OSPF route.
10. EIGRP uses the _________ algorithm to update its routing table.
A. Bellman-Ford
B. Dijkstra
C. DUAL
D. Integrated
Answer: C
EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm to update its routing table.
A is incorrect because this is what distance vector protocols use. B is incorrect because this is what link state protocols use. D is a nonexistent routing algorithm.
11. EIGRP generates hellos every _________ seconds on LAN segments.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
Answer: A
EIGRP generates hellos every five seconds.
B, C, and D are incorrect hello periods.
12. EIGRP will route for ___________.
A. IP
B. IP and IPX
C. IP and AppleTalk
D. IP, IPX, and AppleTalk
Answer: D
EIGRP supports three routed protocols: IP, IPX, and AppleTalk.
A is incorrect because it omits IPX and AppleTalk. B is incorrect because it omits
13. A __________ route is the best path to reach a destination within the topology table.
A. Successor
B. Feasible successor
C. Advertised distance
D. Feasible distance
Answer: A
A successor route is the best path to reach a destination within the topology table.
B is incorrect because this is a valid backup route. C refers to a neighbor’s distance to a route. D refers to a router’s distance to a route.
14. Enter the EIGRP command or commands to include the interfaces with 192.168.1.1/26, 192.168.1.64/26, and 192.168.1.128/26 in the routing process: __________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
NETWORK 192.168.1.0
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 network 192.168.1.0. Remember that this configuration is classful.
15. Enter the EIGRP command to view only the successor routes: __________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW IP ROUTE
Use this command to view EIGRP’s successor routes: show ip route.
16. Enter the EIGRP command to view both the successor and feasible successor routes:_______________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW IP EIGRP TOPOLOGY
Use this command to view both the successor and feasible successor routes: show ip
A. It provides a loop-free topology.
B. It is a classful protocol and allows for a hierarchical design.
C. It requires more memory and processing cycles than distance vector protocols.
D. It is complex to configure and difficult to troubleshoot.
Answer: B
OSPF is a classless, not a classful protocol.
A, C, and D are true concerning OSPF.
2. The OSPF process ID is __________.
A. Locally significant and is the router ID
B. Globally significant and must be configured on every router
C. Locally significant
D. OSPF doesn’t use a process ID, but an AS number
Answer: C
The OSPF process ID is locally significant.
A is not true, because the router ID is based on the highest IP address of a loopback or active interface. B is not true, because it is locally significant. D is not true, because OSPF requires a process ID to be configured.
3. Enter the OSPF command to include all of its interfaces in area 0: __________.
A. Network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. Net 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
c. N/W all networks wild card marsk area null
Answer: A
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0.
4. OSPF uses __________ as a metric.
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Cost
D. Hop count
Answer: C
OSPF uses bandwidth as a metric.
A is used to compute the cost, which is the inverse of the bandwidth. B is used by IGRP and EIGRP. D is used by RIP.
5. An OSPF’s router ID is based on __________.
A. The lowest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its active interfaces
B. The highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the highest IP address on its active interfaces
C. The highest IP address on its active interfaces, if configured, or the highest IP address on its loopback interfaces
D. The lowest IP address on its active interfaces, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its loopback interfaces
Answer: B
An OSPF’s router ID is based on the highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the highest IP address on its active interfaces.
A is incorrect because specifies lowest. C is incorrect because the loopback is used first, if configured. D is incorrect because the loopback is checked first.
6. OSPF hellos are sent every __________ seconds on a multi-access medium.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 40
Answer: B
OSPF hellos are sent every ten seconds.
D is the dead interval timer, and A and C are incorrect timers.
7. Enter the OSPF command to view all of a router’s neighbors: __________.
A. show ip ospf neighbors
B. show ip ospf interfaces
C. show ip ospf
Answer: A
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 show ip ospf neighbor.
8. OSPF supports a ________-layer hierarchical design.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Multi
Answer: B
OSPF supports a two-layer hierarchical design: the backbone (area 0) and areas off of the backbone.
A is incorrect because this is a flat design. C is incorrect because only two layers are supported. D is true, but B is more correct.
9. When examining the IP routing table, an EIGRP route will be shown as what letter?
A. I
B. E
C. O
D. D
Answer: D
A D in the routing table indicates an EIGRP route.
A indicates an IGRP route. B indicates an EGP route. C is an OSPF route.
10. EIGRP uses the _________ algorithm to update its routing table.
A. Bellman-Ford
B. Dijkstra
C. DUAL
D. Integrated
Answer: C
EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm to update its routing table.
A is incorrect because this is what distance vector protocols use. B is incorrect because this is what link state protocols use. D is a nonexistent routing algorithm.
11. EIGRP generates hellos every _________ seconds on LAN segments.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
Answer: A
EIGRP generates hellos every five seconds.
B, C, and D are incorrect hello periods.
12. EIGRP will route for ___________.
A. IP
B. IP and IPX
C. IP and AppleTalk
D. IP, IPX, and AppleTalk
Answer: D
EIGRP supports three routed protocols: IP, IPX, and AppleTalk.
A is incorrect because it omits IPX and AppleTalk. B is incorrect because it omits
13. A __________ route is the best path to reach a destination within the topology table.
A. Successor
B. Feasible successor
C. Advertised distance
D. Feasible distance
Answer: A
A successor route is the best path to reach a destination within the topology table.
B is incorrect because this is a valid backup route. C refers to a neighbor’s distance to a route. D refers to a router’s distance to a route.
14. Enter the EIGRP command or commands to include the interfaces with 192.168.1.1/26, 192.168.1.64/26, and 192.168.1.128/26 in the routing process: __________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
NETWORK 192.168.1.0
SYMBOL 254 \f "Wingdings" \s 11 network 192.168.1.0. Remember that this configuration is classful.
15. Enter the EIGRP command to view only the successor routes: __________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW IP ROUTE
Use this command to view EIGRP’s successor routes: show ip route.
16. Enter the EIGRP command to view both the successor and feasible successor routes:_______________.
A. IF YOU DUNNO THEN CLICK TO VIEW ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW IP EIGRP TOPOLOGY
Use this command to view both the successor and feasible successor routes: show ip
IOS
1. Which command takes you from Privilege EXEC mode to User EXEC mode?
A. enable
B. disable
C. exit
D. logout
Answer: B
The disable command takes you from Privilege EXEC mode to User EXEC mode.
A does the reverse and therefore is incorrect, and C and D log you out of the router.
2. Which prompt indicates that you are at User EXEC mode?
A. >
B. #
C. %
D. @
Answer: A
The “>“ indicates User EXEC mode.
B is incorrect because it indicates Privilege EXEC mode. C and D are incorrect because these are invalid prompts.
3. The _________ command takes you from User EXEC mode to Privilege EXEC mode. IOS Basics
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
ENABLE
The enable command takes you from User EXEC mode to Privilege EXEC mode.
4. If you wanted a list of parameters for the show command, you would type ________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW ?
To view all of the parameters for the show command, enter show ?.
5. To recall a previous command, which of the following would you use?
A. CTRL-P
B. ctrl-n
C. ctrl-r
D. down arrow
Answer: A
CTRL-P recalls a previous command.
B and D recall the next command, and C redisplays the current line.
6. Which control sequence moves the cursor to the end of the line?
A. CTRL-A
B. ctrl-p
C. ctrl-e
D. ctrl-z
Answer: C
CTRL-E takes you to the end of the CLI.
A takes you to the beginning, B takes you to the previous line, and E logs you out.
7. What would you enter to see the last few commands you entered?
A. show version
B. show commands
C. show previous
D. show history
Answer: D
The show history command displays the last few commands that you entered.
A displays software and hardware information. B and D are nonexistent commands.
8. Which would you use to move your cursor back one word?
A. ESC-B
B. esc-p
C. ctrl-b
D. ctrl-p
Answer: A
The ESC-B control sequence takes you back one word on the CLI.
B is incorrect because it is an invalid control sequence. C is incorrect because it takes you back one character. D is also incorrect, because it takes you back one line.
9. If you enter a command in either User EXEC mode or Privilege EXEC mode that the IOS does not recognize, the switch or router
A. Logs you out
B. Tries to resolve the command to an IP address
C. Executes the closest command that it can find in its command set
D. Makes a “beep” sound
Answer: B
Whenever you enter an invalid command, the device attempts to first resolve the command to an IP address and telnet to this machine.
A is incorrect because this requires you to execute the logout command. C is incorrect because the IOS doesn’t know what command to execute. D is incorrect because sounds aren’t supported with the CLI.
10. You are at User EXEC mode and type the letter e. What message appears?
A. % Incomplete command.
B. % Ambiguous command:
C. % Unknown command or computer name
D. % Invalid input detected at ‘^’.
Answer: B
If you don’t type enough characters for a command or parameter, you’ll get an “ambiguous command” message.
A is incorrect because you didn’t type enough parameters for the command. C is incorrect because this message is shown when you enter an invalid command, and D is incorrect because you entered incorrect or invalid information for a valid command.
11. On the 1900 switch, how do you enter User EXEC mode?
A. It comes up by default.
B. Enter the letter U in the menu.
C. Enter the letter K in the menu.
D. Enter the letter C in the menu.
Answer: C
Enter K to access User EXEC mode on a 1900 switch.
A is true for the 2950 and the routers, not the 1900. B and D are incorrect because these are nonexistent options.
12. Enter the command to access Configuration mode: __________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
CONFIGURE TERMINAL
The configure terminal command takes you from Privilege EXEC mode to Configuration mode.
13. Enter the command to assign a name to a 1900 switch of switch1: ___________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
HOSTNAME SWITCH1
The hostname switch1 command changes the name of the 1900 switch to “switch1.”
14. What command assigns a User EXEC password to a 2950 switch?
A. password
B. login
C. enable password
D. enable password level
Answer: A
The Line Subconfiguration mode password command assigns a console or telnet User EXEC mode password.
B is incorrect because this specifies authentication with the password command. C is incorrect because this assigns a Privilege EXEC password. D is incorrect because this assigns passwords on a 1900 switch.
15. Which command assigns a default gateway to the 2950 switch?
A. (config)# default-gateway
B. (config-if)# default-gateway
C. (config-if)# ip default-gateway
D. (config)# ip default-gateway
Answer: D
The ip default-gateway Global Configuration mode command assigns a default gateway to either a 1900 or 2950 switch.
C is incorrect because it is in the wrong mode. B and D are incorrect because they are invalid commands.
16. The router automatically saves its configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The router does not automatically save its configuration; you need to use the copy running-config startup-config to save it to NVRAM.
17. You examine your interfaces, and the Ethernet 0 interface status says: Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is down. What does this indicate?
A. There is a physical layer problem.
B. There is a data link layer problem.
C. There is a network layer problem.
D. There is no problem.
Answer: B
The “line protocol is down” refers to the data link layer.
A is incorrect because the physical layer is “up.” C is incorrect because the status refers only to the physical and data link layers. Since there is a correct answer, D is incorrect.
18. You execute the line console 0 command from Configuration mode. What will the router’s prompt be?
A. Router(config)#
B. Router(config-line)#
C. Router(config-interface)#
D. Router#(config-if)
Answer: B
When you execute the line console 0 command, your prompt changes to “Router(config-line)#.”
A is incorrect because this is Global Configuration mode. D represents Interface Subconfiguration mode, and C is a nonexistent prompt.
19. You are in Interface Subconfiguration mode and want to completely return to Privilege EXEC mode. What would you enter? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. CTRL-Z
B. end
C. exit
D. logout
Answer: A
A and B. The CTRL-Z control sequence and the end command take you from any Configuration mode back to Privilege EXEC mode.
C only takes you back one level, while D is a User and Privilege EXEC mode command.
20. What router command saves the active configuration to NVRAM?
A. copy nvram startup-config
B. copy startup-config running-config
C. copy running-config nvram
D. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: D
Use the copy running-config startup-config to back up your configuration from RAM to NVRAM.
B is incorrect because this restores your configuration to RAM. A and C are incorrect because these commands use nonexistent parameters.
A. enable
B. disable
C. exit
D. logout
Answer: B
The disable command takes you from Privilege EXEC mode to User EXEC mode.
A does the reverse and therefore is incorrect, and C and D log you out of the router.
2. Which prompt indicates that you are at User EXEC mode?
A. >
B. #
C. %
D. @
Answer: A
The “>“ indicates User EXEC mode.
B is incorrect because it indicates Privilege EXEC mode. C and D are incorrect because these are invalid prompts.
3. The _________ command takes you from User EXEC mode to Privilege EXEC mode. IOS Basics
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
ENABLE
The enable command takes you from User EXEC mode to Privilege EXEC mode.
4. If you wanted a list of parameters for the show command, you would type ________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
SHOW ?
To view all of the parameters for the show command, enter show ?.
5. To recall a previous command, which of the following would you use?
A. CTRL-P
B. ctrl-n
C. ctrl-r
D. down arrow
Answer: A
CTRL-P recalls a previous command.
B and D recall the next command, and C redisplays the current line.
6. Which control sequence moves the cursor to the end of the line?
A. CTRL-A
B. ctrl-p
C. ctrl-e
D. ctrl-z
Answer: C
CTRL-E takes you to the end of the CLI.
A takes you to the beginning, B takes you to the previous line, and E logs you out.
7. What would you enter to see the last few commands you entered?
A. show version
B. show commands
C. show previous
D. show history
Answer: D
The show history command displays the last few commands that you entered.
A displays software and hardware information. B and D are nonexistent commands.
8. Which would you use to move your cursor back one word?
A. ESC-B
B. esc-p
C. ctrl-b
D. ctrl-p
Answer: A
The ESC-B control sequence takes you back one word on the CLI.
B is incorrect because it is an invalid control sequence. C is incorrect because it takes you back one character. D is also incorrect, because it takes you back one line.
9. If you enter a command in either User EXEC mode or Privilege EXEC mode that the IOS does not recognize, the switch or router
A. Logs you out
B. Tries to resolve the command to an IP address
C. Executes the closest command that it can find in its command set
D. Makes a “beep” sound
Answer: B
Whenever you enter an invalid command, the device attempts to first resolve the command to an IP address and telnet to this machine.
A is incorrect because this requires you to execute the logout command. C is incorrect because the IOS doesn’t know what command to execute. D is incorrect because sounds aren’t supported with the CLI.
10. You are at User EXEC mode and type the letter e. What message appears?
A. % Incomplete command.
B. % Ambiguous command:
C. % Unknown command or computer name
D. % Invalid input detected at ‘^’.
Answer: B
If you don’t type enough characters for a command or parameter, you’ll get an “ambiguous command” message.
A is incorrect because you didn’t type enough parameters for the command. C is incorrect because this message is shown when you enter an invalid command, and D is incorrect because you entered incorrect or invalid information for a valid command.
11. On the 1900 switch, how do you enter User EXEC mode?
A. It comes up by default.
B. Enter the letter U in the menu.
C. Enter the letter K in the menu.
D. Enter the letter C in the menu.
Answer: C
Enter K to access User EXEC mode on a 1900 switch.
A is true for the 2950 and the routers, not the 1900. B and D are incorrect because these are nonexistent options.
12. Enter the command to access Configuration mode: __________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
CONFIGURE TERMINAL
The configure terminal command takes you from Privilege EXEC mode to Configuration mode.
13. Enter the command to assign a name to a 1900 switch of switch1: ___________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
HOSTNAME SWITCH1
The hostname switch1 command changes the name of the 1900 switch to “switch1.”
14. What command assigns a User EXEC password to a 2950 switch?
A. password
B. login
C. enable password
D. enable password level
Answer: A
The Line Subconfiguration mode password command assigns a console or telnet User EXEC mode password.
B is incorrect because this specifies authentication with the password command. C is incorrect because this assigns a Privilege EXEC password. D is incorrect because this assigns passwords on a 1900 switch.
15. Which command assigns a default gateway to the 2950 switch?
A. (config)# default-gateway
B. (config-if)# default-gateway
C. (config-if)# ip default-gateway
D. (config)# ip default-gateway
Answer: D
The ip default-gateway Global Configuration mode command assigns a default gateway to either a 1900 or 2950 switch.
C is incorrect because it is in the wrong mode. B and D are incorrect because they are invalid commands.
16. The router automatically saves its configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The router does not automatically save its configuration; you need to use the copy running-config startup-config to save it to NVRAM.
17. You examine your interfaces, and the Ethernet 0 interface status says: Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is down. What does this indicate?
A. There is a physical layer problem.
B. There is a data link layer problem.
C. There is a network layer problem.
D. There is no problem.
Answer: B
The “line protocol is down” refers to the data link layer.
A is incorrect because the physical layer is “up.” C is incorrect because the status refers only to the physical and data link layers. Since there is a correct answer, D is incorrect.
18. You execute the line console 0 command from Configuration mode. What will the router’s prompt be?
A. Router(config)#
B. Router(config-line)#
C. Router(config-interface)#
D. Router#(config-if)
Answer: B
When you execute the line console 0 command, your prompt changes to “Router(config-line)#.”
A is incorrect because this is Global Configuration mode. D represents Interface Subconfiguration mode, and C is a nonexistent prompt.
19. You are in Interface Subconfiguration mode and want to completely return to Privilege EXEC mode. What would you enter? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. CTRL-Z
B. end
C. exit
D. logout
Answer: A
A and B. The CTRL-Z control sequence and the end command take you from any Configuration mode back to Privilege EXEC mode.
C only takes you back one level, while D is a User and Privilege EXEC mode command.
20. What router command saves the active configuration to NVRAM?
A. copy nvram startup-config
B. copy startup-config running-config
C. copy running-config nvram
D. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: D
Use the copy running-config startup-config to back up your configuration from RAM to NVRAM.
B is incorrect because this restores your configuration to RAM. A and C are incorrect because these commands use nonexistent parameters.
GENERAL ROUTING
1.Which of the following routes will be used to forward data in a situation where a routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes destined to the same network with each set to its default administrative distance?
A. The RIP route
B. The static route
C. The IGRP route
D. All three will load balance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To decide which route to use, IOS uses a concept called administrative Distance. Administrative distance is a number that denotes how believable an entire routing protocol is on a single router. The lower the number, the better, or more believable the routing protocol.
Route Type Administrative Distance
• Static 1
• IGRP 100
• RIP 120
2.What could be the rationale behind using passive-interface command when configuring a router?
A. Allows interfaces to share common IP addresses.
B. Allows an interface to remain up without the aid of keepalives.
C. Allows a router to send routing and not receive updates via that interface.
D. Allows a routing protocol to forward updates that is missing its IP address.
E. Allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The passive-interface command is used to control the advertisement of routing information. The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while allowing updates to be exchanged normally over other interfaces.
With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. However, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. This document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the exchange of hello packets between two routers, resulting in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This stops not only routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates, while allowing incoming routing updates to be learnt normally from the neighbor.
3.What are the benefits of using a router to segment the network at a main office? (Select two options.)
A. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.
B. Broadcasts are eradicated.
C. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
D. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
E. Routers are more efficient than switches.
Answer: A,D
Explanation
Routers do not forward broadcast messages and therefore breaks up a broadcast domain. In addition, routers can be used to filter network information.
4.Which of the following commands will you use to display the configuration register setting on a router?
A. show boot
B. show flash
C. show register
D. show version
E. show config
Answer: D
Explanation:
"show version" To display the configuration of the system hardware, the software version, the names and sources of configuration files, and the boot images, use the show version command in EXEC mode.
5.What are the characteristic of link state routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
B. All routers exchange routing tables with each other iIn a multipoint network.
C. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
D. Paths are chosen depending on the cost efficiency factor.
E. Every router in an OSPF area is capable of representing the entire network topology.
F. Only the designated router in an OSPF area can represent the entire network topology.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Open Shortest Path First
• Each router discovers its neighbors on each interface. The list of neighbors is kept in a neighbor table.
• Each router uses a reliable protocol to exchange topology information with its neighbors.
• Each router places the learned topology information into its topology database.
• Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database.
• Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database to calculate the best routes to each subnet in the database.
• Each router places the best roué to each subnet into the IP routing table. The following list points out some of the key features of OSPF:
• Converges very quickly – from the point of recognizing a failure, it often can converge in less than 10 seconds.
• Supports VLSM.
• Uses short Hello messages on a short regular interval, with the absence of hello messages indicating that a neighbor is no longer reachable.
• Sends partial updates when link status changes, and floods full updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happened all at once, so the overhead s minimal.
• Uses cost for the metric.
6.You are a network technician at RJP. A newly appointed trainee wants to know what the basics of distance vector and link state routing protocols are. What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Distance vector protocols send the entire routing table to directly connected neighbors.
B. Distance vector protocols are responsible for sending updates to all networks listed in the routing table.
C. Link state protocols are responsible for sending the entire routing table to the whole network.
D. Link state protocols send updates regarding their own links status to all other routers on the network.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Distance Vector Protocols:
Distance Vector Protocols advertise routing information by sending messages, called routing updates, out the interfaces on a router. These updates contain a series of entries, with each entry representing a subnet and a metric.
Link-State Protocols:
Sends partial updates when link status changes and floods full updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happen all at once, so the overhead is minimal.
7.Which of the following statements is true regarding the split horizon rule?
A. Distance vector protocols need fall back routes that are responsible for momentary loops.
B. Networks can only remain fully operational provided all information is sent out all active interfaces.
C. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to avoid dead routes from being advertised.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.
E. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Split horizon blocks information about routes from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated.
8.You are a network technician at RJP. You are working with a 2500 series Cisco router. You are performing the password recovery procedure. You have just typed the following command:
o/r 0x2142
Your newly appointed trainee is curious about why this command is used. What should you tell him?
A. It is used to restart the router.
B. It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
C. It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode.
D. It is used to view the lost password.
E. It is used to save the changes to the configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The o/r 0x2142 command changes the value of config-register to 2142, so that the Router ignores the NVRAM contents when it boots.
9.You are a network technician at RJP. You have told a newly appointed trainee that the OSI model has 7 layers and that the Application layer is the highest layer. The trainee is curious as to which protocols operate at the application layer. What should you tell him? (Choose all that apply.)
A. TCP
B. Telnet
C. FTP
D. ARP
E. IP
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Layer Name Examples
Application (layer 7) Telnet, HTTP, FTP, WWW browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP
10.You are a network administrator at RJP. The RJP network has three remote networks are accessed through serial 0/0 interface on the RJP1 router. The remote networks are: 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0. However, users cannot access 172.16.20.0. You are troubleshooting the problem. You issue the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. The output form the command is shown in the following exhibit:
RJP1# debug ip rip
ld00h: RIP:received vl update from 172.16.100.2 on Serial0/0
ld00h: 172.16.10.0 in 1 hops
ld00h: 172.16.20.0 in 1 hops
ld00h: 172.16.30.0 in 1 hops
RJP1# show ip route
Gateway of last resort is not set
172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 8 subnets
C 172.16.150.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 172.16.220.0 is directly connected, Loopback2
C 172.16.210.0 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 172.16.200.0 is directly connected, Loopback0
R 172.16.30.0 [120/1] via 172.16.100.2, 00:00:07, Serial0/0
S 172.16.20.0 [1/0] via 172.16.150.15
R 172.16.10.0 [120/1] via 172.16.100.2, 00:00:07, Serial0/0
C 172.16.100.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. 172.16.20.0 is not located in RJP1’s routing table.
B. There is no gateway of last resort on RJP1.
C. The static route for 172.16.20.0 is incorrect.
D. The RJP1 router is not receiving 172.16.20.0 updates.
Answer: C
11.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are currently troubleshooting a Cisco router. You issue the show ip route command. The output from the command is displayed in the following exhibit:
RJP1#show ip route
Codes: C – connected, S – static, I – IGRP, R- RIP, M – mobile, B – BGP
D – EIGRP, EX – EIGRP external, O – OSPF, IA – OSPF inner area
E1 – OSPF external type 1, E2 – OSPF external type 2, E – EGP
i – IS-IS, L1 – IS-IS level-1, L2 – IS-IS level-2, * - Candidate default
U – per-user static route
Gateway of last resort is not set
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
C 192.168.9.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1
R 192.168.10.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:02, Serial1
R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.4.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.6.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.7.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Which route will not be entered into the routing table of a neighboring router?
A. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
B. C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C. R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
D. R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Answer: D
Explanation:
RIP has the maximum hop count of 15. This route already has a hop count of 15 and adding one would make it unreachable (see below). This route will be discarded. R 202.30.5.0/24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
12.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are required to establish a Telnet session with a cisco router.Which of the following commands should you use?
A. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-if)# enable password RJP
B. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable password RJP
C. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable secret RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
D. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable secret RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
E. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-line)# password RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
F. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# password RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
Answer: F
Explanation:
Access from Password Type Configuration
Telnet vty password line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
13.What could you use to prevent rooting loops in the network when configuring the network using a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Shortest path first tree
C. Link-state advertisements (LSA)
D. Hold-down timers
E. Split horizon
F. VRP
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
• Split horizon – the routing protocol advertises routes out an interface only if they were not learned from updates entering that interface.
• Hold-down timer – After finding out that a router to a subnet has failed, a router waits a certain period of time before believing any other routing information about that subnet.
14.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You have completed the password recovery procedure on a Cisco router successfully and the router returned to normal operation. What is configuration register value at this point in time?
A. 0x2112
B. 0x2104
C. 0x2102
D. 0x2101
E. 0x2100
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is default factory setting. Router should attempt to load an IOS from flash memory and load startup configuration file. Flash memory also called NVRAM
15.Documenting the name of the IOS image file of each router in the network is part of updating network documentation. Which of the following commands can be used to obtain this information?
A. Router# show IOS
B. Router# show version
C. Router# show image
D. Router# show protocols
E. Router# show flash
Answer: B
"Show flash" displays all the image files in it. There could be more than one file. However, "show version" displays the one that is currently in use by the router.
16.Which of the following statements describes the rule of split horizon?
A. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
B. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to prevent dead routes from being advertised across boundaries.
C. Networks can only remain fully converged if all information is sent out all active interfaces.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.
E. Distance vector protocols need fall back routers that are responsible for momentary loops.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Split horizon includes two related concepts that affect what routes are included in a routing update: An update does not include the subnet of the interface out which the update is sent All routes with outgoing interface of interface x are not included in updates sent out that same interface x.
17.Which of the following features are PPP characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Encapsulates several different types of routing protocols.
B. Supports only IP.
C. Can be used over analog circuits.
D. Maps Layer addresses.
E. Corrects errors.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
• PPP can be used on either type of line (dial or switched lines), because data-link protocols are designed for point-to-point environment.
• PPP uses one LCP per link and one Control Protocol for each Layer 3 protocol defined on the link. If a router is configured for IPX, Apple Talk, and IP on a PPP serial link, the router configured for PPP encapsulation automatically tries to bring I the appropriate control protocols for each layer 3 protocol.
• Error recovery can be performed by the data-link protocol or a higher-layer protocol, or it might not be performed at all. Supported but not enabled by default.
18.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem. You issue the ping command during a router console session. Your trainee wants to know what the ping command use to test connectivity between the two devices. What would your reply be?
A. ICMP echo request
B. Information interrupt request
C. Timestamp reply
D. Source quench
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ping command sends an ICMP echo request packet to the stated destination address. The TCP/IP software at the destination then replies to the ping echo request packet with a similar packet, called ICMP echo reply.
19.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You must assign static IP addresses to the servers in the RJP network. For network 192.168.20.24/29 the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Explanation
A subnet mask uses 29 bits. This means that it uses
5 bits in the 4th octet. This equates to 255.255.255.248. This network has 3 bits for hosts. Using the 2^n - 2 formula (2^3 -2 in this case), we are left with 6 (2*2*2 - 2 = 6) host addresses. 192.168.20.24 is the network address. Therefore the next address (192.168.20.25) would be the first host address. This address must be assigned to the router, which serves as the gateway for the network. The last available host address would be 192.168.20.30 (192.168.20.24+6). This address is assigned to the server.
20.Which of the following commands will provide you with information regarding the Layer 3 configuration of directly connected router interfaces?
A. show ip links
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show cdp neighbors detail
D. show ip clients
E. show ip route
Answer: C
21.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. Your trainee wants to know which command is used to display the placement and direction of an IP access control list on a router. What would your response be??
A. show interface list
B. show ip route
C. show ip interface
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interface
Answer: C
22.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. One of your trainees asked you which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process. What would your response be?
A. IP address subnet mask
B. Metric weighting
C. Register administrative id
D. Autonomous system number
E. Connected network ID numbers
Answer: D
23.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You have been assigned a junior trainee named Ellen. She wants you to describe what is specific for a global command. What would your response be?
A. A command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status.
B. A command that is set once and will result in affecting the rest of the router operationability.
C. A command that is implemented in all IOS versions.
D. A command that is universal in application supporting different types of protocols.
E. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
Answer: A
24.If pressed for time, how would you go about quickly configuring a router for basic operations?
A. ROM Monitor mode
B. SETUP mode
C. Autoflash mode
D. RXBOOT mode
Answer: B
25.Characteristic such as Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are typical of which OSI layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
E. Layer 6
F. Layer 7
Answer: C
Explanation
The Transport layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include: TCP, UDP, and SPX.
26.In a routine check on the state of the network, you discover that the existing copy of the Cisco IOS is outdated and needs to be updated. Which of the following commands would you issue to replace the Cisco router IOS with the newer version?
A. Router# copy tftp flash
B. Router# copy flash run
C. Router(config)# restore flash
D. Router(config)# repair flash
E. Router> copy start flash
F. Router# copy start flash
Answer: A
27.Which type of NAT will map multiple private IP addresses to a singular registered IP address throughmaking use of different ports?
A. static NAT
B. port loading
C. overloading
D. dynamic NAT
Answer: C
28. Study the Exihibit below carefully:
RtrB#show interface serial0/0
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is PowerQUICC Serial
Internet address is 10.0.15.2/21
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 128 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation PPP, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
LCP Open
Closed: IPXCP
Listen: CCP
Open: IPCP, CDPCP
Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:52:02
Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes): total output drops: 0
Queuing strategy: weighted fair
Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops)
After considering the effects of the command output illustrated in the exhibit above, which of the following are operational on the serial link? (Select two options.)
A. CDP
B. IP
C. Compression
D. IPX
E. Multilink
F. ATX
Answer: A, B
29.One of your trainees asked you which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process. What is your response?
A. Connected subnet numbers
B. Register administrative subnet masks
C. IP address mask
D. Autonomous system number
E. Metric weights
Answer: D
30.You are a technician at RJP. After configuring your router, you find that you cannot ping the directly connected serial port of the neighboring router. The show running-config output displays the word “shutdown” for the serial interface.
Which of the following lines will be displayed in the show interface s0 output?
A. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down
B. Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is up
D. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
E. Serial 0 is administratively up, line protocol is down
F. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is up
Answer: D
31.What are the basic network services that is provided by the Cisco IOS? (Select three options.)
A. Defines topology
B. Access to network resources
C. Routing and switching functions
D. Creation of VLANs
E. Quality of service
Answer: A,B,C
32.Which of the following pieces of information is displayed by the show host command? (Select two options.)
A. The IP addresses of workstations allowed gain access to the router.
B. Permanent name-to-address mappings created using the ip host command.
C. Temporary and permanent DNS entries.
D. The names of the routers created using the hostname command.
E. The length of time a host has been connected via Telnet.
Answer: B, D
33.On three different occasions an administrator configured a router, and after testing the configuration saved it to NVRAM by issuing the copy running-config startup-config command. After each successful save the administrator issued the reload command. However, each time when the router restarted, it appeared to have the default blank configuration.
What could be the cause of such results?
A. The NVRAM is corrupted.
B. The boot system commands were omitted in the configuration.
C. The configuration register setting is incorrect.
D. The upgraded configuration incompatible with the hardware platform.
E. The upgraded IOS incompatible with the hardware.
Answer: C
34.One of your trainees wants to know which of the following statements regarding the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4 are true. What can you tell her? (Select two options.)
A. The default administrative distance is used.
B. The command is used to establish a static route.
C. The command is used to configure the routers.
D. The command is used to establish a stub network.
E. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0
Answer: A, B
35.Which of the following are the routing protocols that are capable of supporting a network that uses VLSM and route summarization? (Select three options.)
A. IGRP
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v1
D. RIP v2
E. OSPF
F. VTP
G. LSA
Answer: B, D, E
36.You have been asked to configure a default route. Which of the IOS commands mentioned below will accomplish this task? (Select two options.)
A. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36
B. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36 255.255.255.255
C. LTD# ip default-network 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36 255.255.255.255
D. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
E. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0
F. LTD(config-router)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36
Answer: A, D
37.Which routing protocol would allow a network administrator scalability and VLSM support and minimize overhead if the network administrator want to merge different networks all using routers from multiple vendors.
A. VTP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IGRP
Answer: D
38.A newly assigned trainee wants to know from you what the "Inside Global" address represents in the configuration of NAT. What can you tell him?
A. The MAC address used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet.
B. The summarized address for all internal subnetted addresses.
C. A private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network.
D. A registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network.
E. A unique IP address used on an intranet.
Answer: D
39.What does the concept route aggregate mean when one talks about using variable subnet masking?
A. Deleting unusable addresses through the creation of many subnets.
B. Combining routes to multiple networks into one supernet.
C. Reclaiming unused space by means of changing the subnet size.
D. Calculating the available host addresses in the AS.
Answer: B
40.Which of the following will allow a router to respond to an ARP request that is meant for a remote host?
A. Gateway DP
B. Reverse ARP
C. proxy ARP
D. Inverse ARP
E. indirect ARP
Answer: C
41.Above is the result of the output of show running-config command. What is causing the problem when the Barrymore router is unable to make calls to the remote site?
A. The authentication password is missing from the dialer map command.
B. The switch-type must be configured.
C. Routing updates are being blocked by the applied dialer-list.
D. The dialer list only permits one protocol.
E. The name in the dialer-map must match the name in the username command.
Answer: E
42.Assuming that all OSPF routers in a particular area are configured with identical priority values, which of the following values would a router use for OSPF router ID when it does not have a loopback interface?
A. The IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface.
B. The IP address of the console management interface.
C. The highest IP address among its active interfaces.
D. The lowest IP address among its active interfaces.
E. The priority value until a loopback interface is configured.
Answer: C
43.With regard to ISDN, which of the following are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Each ISDN B channel has transmission speeds of up to 64 kbps.
B. The ISDN B channel can carry video, voice or data.
C. The ISDN B channel transmission rate varies depending on the service used.
D. The ISDN D channel transmits control information.
E. The ISDN B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types when dialer profiles are configured.
Answer: A, B, D
44.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what the purpose of Inverse ARP is.
What will your reply be?
A. It is used to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B. It is used to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. It is used to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. It is used to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. It is used to map a known MAC address to DLCI
F. It is used to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
Answer: D
45.You are the network technician at RJP. You tell your newly appointed RJP trainee that discontiguous networks in the IP addressing scheme can create problems when a routing protocol tries to identify the next hop. Your trainee now wants to know which routing protocols can be used to minimize the effects of these problems.
What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IGRP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. RIP v1
E. RIP v2
F. EIGRP
Answer: C, E, F
46.You are the network engineer at RJP. Your RJP trainee Tess wants to know which parameter must be supplied when you initialize the IGRP routing process.
What should you tell her?
A. The wild card mask
B. The IP address
C. The IP address mask
D. The metric weights
E. The Autonomous System number
Answer: E
47.You are the network administrator at RJP. From your workstation you telnet to a router VTY line. You perform a number of configurations on the router. You now want to terminate the telnet connection. What command must you issue to terminate the Telnet connection?
A. close
B. disable
C. disconnect
D. suspend
E. exit
Answer: C
48.You are the network administrator at RJP. The RIP routing protocol is being used on the RJP network. RIP is configured with default settings and equal cost load balancing. The RJP network has six paths with the same metric and administrative distance for a single destination. Which of the six paths will RIP use to reach the destination?
A. Only the first two paths that are learned.
B. Four of the paths.
C. All six routes in a routed robin fashion.
D. The oldest two paths in the routing table.
E. The first path learned to the destination network.
Answer: E
49.You are the network administrator at RJP. You want to configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table on router RJP1. Which of the following commands can you issue?
A. RJP1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. RJP1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. RJP1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
D. RJP1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. RJP1(config)# ip route any any e0
Answer: D
50.You are the network administrator at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what the default administrative distance of OSPF routing protocol is. What will your reply be?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 170
Answer: C
51.You are the network administrator at RJP. You must configure a router for load balancing across 4 unequal cost paths on the RJP network.
Which of the following routing protocols can you use? (Choose two.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
F. VLSM
Answer: C, D
52.You are the network administrator at RJP. RJP users report that they cannot access resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of router RJP1. You want to view the current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer 2 status of this interface. Which of the following commands could you use? (Choose three.)
A. RJP1# show version
B. RJP1# show protocols
C. RJP1# show interfaces
D. RJP1# show controllers
E. RJP1# show ip interface
F. RJP1# show startup-config
Answer: C, D, E
53.Which of the following routing protocols minimize the effects of the problems created by discontiguous networks? (Choose three.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. EIGRP
D. IGRP
E. OSPF
F. VLSM
Answer: B, C, E
54.With regard to classless routing protocols, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Discontiguous subnets are not allowed.
B. Variable length subnet masks are allowed.
C. RIP v1 is a classless routing protocol.
D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system.
E. RIP v2 supports classless routing.
Answer: B, E
55.You are the network administrator at RJP. You issue the show ip route command on a router during routine maintenance. The output from the show ip route command indicates a network that is advertised by both RIP and IGRP as an IGRP route. Your RJP assistant wants to know why the RIP route to the network is not used in the routing table.
What will your reply be?
A. IGRP has a faster update timer.
B. IGRP has a lower administrative distance.
C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route.
D. The IGRP route has fewer hops.
E. The RIP path has a routing loop.
Answer: B
56.You are the network administrator at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what router functions are.
What will your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Answer: A, C, F
57.Which of the following are general recommendations for the placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
A. You should place standard ACLS as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied.
B. You should place extended ACLS as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied.
C. You should place standard ACLS as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied.
D. You should place extended ACLS should be places as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied.
Answer: B, C
58.You are the network technician at RJP. Two routers on the RJP network, Router RJP1 and Router RJP2 are configured with RIP only. Router RJP1 receives a routing update with a higher cost path to a remote network that is already in its routing table. What will Router RJP1 do?
A. It will ignore the update and take no further action.
B. It will add the update information to its routing table.
C. It will replace the existing routing table entry with the update information.
D. It will delete the existing routing table and will send out hello packets to rebuild the routing table.
Answer: A
59.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know which command will show the LMI traffic statistics.
What would your reply be?
A. Show interface lmi
B. Show frame-relay lmi
C. Show interface frame-relay
D. Debug frame-relay interface.
Answer: B
60.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know which command will set the bandwidth of serial 0 to 56kbps.
What would your reply be?
A. Bandwidth 56000
B. Bandwidth 56000000
C. Bandwidth 56
D. Bandwidth 56kbps
Answer: C
61.Which command displays all the commands in the history buffer?
A. Show history
B. Show buffers
C. Show typed commands
D. Show terminal buffer
Answer: A
62.IGRP sends a complete routing table to its neighbors how often by default?
A. every 5 minutes
B. every 90 seconds
C. every 60 seconds
D. every 30 seconds
Answer: B
63.Which of the following is not a distance-vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. IPX RIP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: D
64.You are a technician at RJP. You are working within the Cisco IOS. Which of the following functions does the up arrow key provide?
A. Recalls the previous command line
B. Moves the cursor one line up
C. Redisplays the current command line
D. Capitalizes the command line
Answer: A
65.Which command must be entered when connecting two routers WITHOUT external DCE devices?
A. serial up
B. clockrate
C. clock rate
D. dce rate
E. dte rate
Answer: C
66.Which of the following statements regarding routed and routing protocols are true? (Select 2 choices)
A. A routed protocol is assigned to an interface and determines the method of packet delivery
B. A routing protocol determines the path of the packet through a network
C. A routed protocol determines the path of the packet through a network
D. A routing protocol operates at the transport layer of the OSI model
E. A routed protocol updates the routing table of a router
Answer: A, B
67.When powering up a router, which of the following types of memory normally stores the start-up configuration?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. FLASH
D. NVRAM
Answer: D
68.You are a network technician at RJP. You have just finished configuring a router on the RJP network. The changes have been successfully entered and everything is working properly. You then save your changes and reboot the router. None of your changes are active after the reboot. However, when you look at the contents of the startup config, your changes are there.
Which of the following indicates the source of the problem?
A. Hardware failure in NVRAM prevents the router from loading the config
B. Startup-config in flash is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
C. Router configuration-register set to bypass startup configuration
D. Startup-config in NVRAM is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
Answer: C
69.Which of the following commands should be used to display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received by the router?
A. Show ip protocols
B. Show ip route rip
C. Debug ip rip
D. Debug ip updates
E. Debug ip transactions
Answer: C
70.You are the network administrator at RJP.com. You have just configured a new router that you attached to the RJP network. You ping the directly connected serial port of the directly neighboring router. The ping is unsuccessful. The show running-config output displays the word “shutdown” for the serial interface.
Which of the following lines will be displayed in the show interface s0 output?
A. Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down
B. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down
C. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is up
D. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
E. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is up
F. Serial 0 is administratively up, line protocol is down
Answer: D
71.Which symbol in the router prompt indicates you are in the privileged mode?
A. >
B. #
C. ?
D. *
Answer: B
A. The RIP route
B. The static route
C. The IGRP route
D. All three will load balance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To decide which route to use, IOS uses a concept called administrative Distance. Administrative distance is a number that denotes how believable an entire routing protocol is on a single router. The lower the number, the better, or more believable the routing protocol.
Route Type Administrative Distance
• Static 1
• IGRP 100
• RIP 120
2.What could be the rationale behind using passive-interface command when configuring a router?
A. Allows interfaces to share common IP addresses.
B. Allows an interface to remain up without the aid of keepalives.
C. Allows a router to send routing and not receive updates via that interface.
D. Allows a routing protocol to forward updates that is missing its IP address.
E. Allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The passive-interface command is used to control the advertisement of routing information. The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while allowing updates to be exchanged normally over other interfaces.
With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. However, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. This document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the exchange of hello packets between two routers, resulting in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This stops not only routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates, while allowing incoming routing updates to be learnt normally from the neighbor.
3.What are the benefits of using a router to segment the network at a main office? (Select two options.)
A. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.
B. Broadcasts are eradicated.
C. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
D. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
E. Routers are more efficient than switches.
Answer: A,D
Explanation
Routers do not forward broadcast messages and therefore breaks up a broadcast domain. In addition, routers can be used to filter network information.
4.Which of the following commands will you use to display the configuration register setting on a router?
A. show boot
B. show flash
C. show register
D. show version
E. show config
Answer: D
Explanation:
"show version" To display the configuration of the system hardware, the software version, the names and sources of configuration files, and the boot images, use the show version command in EXEC mode.
5.What are the characteristic of link state routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
B. All routers exchange routing tables with each other iIn a multipoint network.
C. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
D. Paths are chosen depending on the cost efficiency factor.
E. Every router in an OSPF area is capable of representing the entire network topology.
F. Only the designated router in an OSPF area can represent the entire network topology.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Open Shortest Path First
• Each router discovers its neighbors on each interface. The list of neighbors is kept in a neighbor table.
• Each router uses a reliable protocol to exchange topology information with its neighbors.
• Each router places the learned topology information into its topology database.
• Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database.
• Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database to calculate the best routes to each subnet in the database.
• Each router places the best roué to each subnet into the IP routing table. The following list points out some of the key features of OSPF:
• Converges very quickly – from the point of recognizing a failure, it often can converge in less than 10 seconds.
• Supports VLSM.
• Uses short Hello messages on a short regular interval, with the absence of hello messages indicating that a neighbor is no longer reachable.
• Sends partial updates when link status changes, and floods full updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happened all at once, so the overhead s minimal.
• Uses cost for the metric.
6.You are a network technician at RJP. A newly appointed trainee wants to know what the basics of distance vector and link state routing protocols are. What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Distance vector protocols send the entire routing table to directly connected neighbors.
B. Distance vector protocols are responsible for sending updates to all networks listed in the routing table.
C. Link state protocols are responsible for sending the entire routing table to the whole network.
D. Link state protocols send updates regarding their own links status to all other routers on the network.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Distance Vector Protocols:
Distance Vector Protocols advertise routing information by sending messages, called routing updates, out the interfaces on a router. These updates contain a series of entries, with each entry representing a subnet and a metric.
Link-State Protocols:
Sends partial updates when link status changes and floods full updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happen all at once, so the overhead is minimal.
7.Which of the following statements is true regarding the split horizon rule?
A. Distance vector protocols need fall back routes that are responsible for momentary loops.
B. Networks can only remain fully operational provided all information is sent out all active interfaces.
C. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to avoid dead routes from being advertised.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.
E. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Split horizon blocks information about routes from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated.
8.You are a network technician at RJP. You are working with a 2500 series Cisco router. You are performing the password recovery procedure. You have just typed the following command:
o/r 0x2142
Your newly appointed trainee is curious about why this command is used. What should you tell him?
A. It is used to restart the router.
B. It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
C. It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode.
D. It is used to view the lost password.
E. It is used to save the changes to the configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The o/r 0x2142 command changes the value of config-register to 2142, so that the Router ignores the NVRAM contents when it boots.
9.You are a network technician at RJP. You have told a newly appointed trainee that the OSI model has 7 layers and that the Application layer is the highest layer. The trainee is curious as to which protocols operate at the application layer. What should you tell him? (Choose all that apply.)
A. TCP
B. Telnet
C. FTP
D. ARP
E. IP
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Layer Name Examples
Application (layer 7) Telnet, HTTP, FTP, WWW browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP
10.You are a network administrator at RJP. The RJP network has three remote networks are accessed through serial 0/0 interface on the RJP1 router. The remote networks are: 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0. However, users cannot access 172.16.20.0. You are troubleshooting the problem. You issue the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. The output form the command is shown in the following exhibit:
RJP1# debug ip rip
ld00h: RIP:received vl update from 172.16.100.2 on Serial0/0
ld00h: 172.16.10.0 in 1 hops
ld00h: 172.16.20.0 in 1 hops
ld00h: 172.16.30.0 in 1 hops
RJP1# show ip route
Gateway of last resort is not set
172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 8 subnets
C 172.16.150.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 172.16.220.0 is directly connected, Loopback2
C 172.16.210.0 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 172.16.200.0 is directly connected, Loopback0
R 172.16.30.0 [120/1] via 172.16.100.2, 00:00:07, Serial0/0
S 172.16.20.0 [1/0] via 172.16.150.15
R 172.16.10.0 [120/1] via 172.16.100.2, 00:00:07, Serial0/0
C 172.16.100.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. 172.16.20.0 is not located in RJP1’s routing table.
B. There is no gateway of last resort on RJP1.
C. The static route for 172.16.20.0 is incorrect.
D. The RJP1 router is not receiving 172.16.20.0 updates.
Answer: C
11.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are currently troubleshooting a Cisco router. You issue the show ip route command. The output from the command is displayed in the following exhibit:
RJP1#show ip route
Codes: C – connected, S – static, I – IGRP, R- RIP, M – mobile, B – BGP
D – EIGRP, EX – EIGRP external, O – OSPF, IA – OSPF inner area
E1 – OSPF external type 1, E2 – OSPF external type 2, E – EGP
i – IS-IS, L1 – IS-IS level-1, L2 – IS-IS level-2, * - Candidate default
U – per-user static route
Gateway of last resort is not set
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
C 192.168.9.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1
R 192.168.10.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:02, Serial1
R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.4.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.6.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
R 192.168.7.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Which route will not be entered into the routing table of a neighboring router?
A. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
B. C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C. R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
D. R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Answer: D
Explanation:
RIP has the maximum hop count of 15. This route already has a hop count of 15 and adding one would make it unreachable (see below). This route will be discarded. R 202.30.5.0/24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
12.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are required to establish a Telnet session with a cisco router.Which of the following commands should you use?
A. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-if)# enable password RJP
B. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable password RJP
C. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable secret RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
D. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-line)# enable secret RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
E. RJP1(config)# line console 0
RJP1(config-line)# password RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
F. RJP1(config)# line vty 0
RJP1(config-line)# password RJP
RJP1(config-line)# login
Answer: F
Explanation:
Access from Password Type Configuration
Telnet vty password line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
13.What could you use to prevent rooting loops in the network when configuring the network using a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Shortest path first tree
C. Link-state advertisements (LSA)
D. Hold-down timers
E. Split horizon
F. VRP
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
• Split horizon – the routing protocol advertises routes out an interface only if they were not learned from updates entering that interface.
• Hold-down timer – After finding out that a router to a subnet has failed, a router waits a certain period of time before believing any other routing information about that subnet.
14.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You have completed the password recovery procedure on a Cisco router successfully and the router returned to normal operation. What is configuration register value at this point in time?
A. 0x2112
B. 0x2104
C. 0x2102
D. 0x2101
E. 0x2100
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is default factory setting. Router should attempt to load an IOS from flash memory and load startup configuration file. Flash memory also called NVRAM
15.Documenting the name of the IOS image file of each router in the network is part of updating network documentation. Which of the following commands can be used to obtain this information?
A. Router# show IOS
B. Router# show version
C. Router# show image
D. Router# show protocols
E. Router# show flash
Answer: B
"Show flash" displays all the image files in it. There could be more than one file. However, "show version" displays the one that is currently in use by the router.
16.Which of the following statements describes the rule of split horizon?
A. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
B. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to prevent dead routes from being advertised across boundaries.
C. Networks can only remain fully converged if all information is sent out all active interfaces.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.
E. Distance vector protocols need fall back routers that are responsible for momentary loops.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Split horizon includes two related concepts that affect what routes are included in a routing update: An update does not include the subnet of the interface out which the update is sent All routes with outgoing interface of interface x are not included in updates sent out that same interface x.
17.Which of the following features are PPP characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Encapsulates several different types of routing protocols.
B. Supports only IP.
C. Can be used over analog circuits.
D. Maps Layer addresses.
E. Corrects errors.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
• PPP can be used on either type of line (dial or switched lines), because data-link protocols are designed for point-to-point environment.
• PPP uses one LCP per link and one Control Protocol for each Layer 3 protocol defined on the link. If a router is configured for IPX, Apple Talk, and IP on a PPP serial link, the router configured for PPP encapsulation automatically tries to bring I the appropriate control protocols for each layer 3 protocol.
• Error recovery can be performed by the data-link protocol or a higher-layer protocol, or it might not be performed at all. Supported but not enabled by default.
18.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem. You issue the ping command during a router console session. Your trainee wants to know what the ping command use to test connectivity between the two devices. What would your reply be?
A. ICMP echo request
B. Information interrupt request
C. Timestamp reply
D. Source quench
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ping command sends an ICMP echo request packet to the stated destination address. The TCP/IP software at the destination then replies to the ping echo request packet with a similar packet, called ICMP echo reply.
19.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You must assign static IP addresses to the servers in the RJP network. For network 192.168.20.24/29 the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Explanation
A subnet mask uses 29 bits. This means that it uses
5 bits in the 4th octet. This equates to 255.255.255.248. This network has 3 bits for hosts. Using the 2^n - 2 formula (2^3 -2 in this case), we are left with 6 (2*2*2 - 2 = 6) host addresses. 192.168.20.24 is the network address. Therefore the next address (192.168.20.25) would be the first host address. This address must be assigned to the router, which serves as the gateway for the network. The last available host address would be 192.168.20.30 (192.168.20.24+6). This address is assigned to the server.
20.Which of the following commands will provide you with information regarding the Layer 3 configuration of directly connected router interfaces?
A. show ip links
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show cdp neighbors detail
D. show ip clients
E. show ip route
Answer: C
21.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. Your trainee wants to know which command is used to display the placement and direction of an IP access control list on a router. What would your response be??
A. show interface list
B. show ip route
C. show ip interface
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interface
Answer: C
22.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. One of your trainees asked you which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process. What would your response be?
A. IP address subnet mask
B. Metric weighting
C. Register administrative id
D. Autonomous system number
E. Connected network ID numbers
Answer: D
23.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You have been assigned a junior trainee named Ellen. She wants you to describe what is specific for a global command. What would your response be?
A. A command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status.
B. A command that is set once and will result in affecting the rest of the router operationability.
C. A command that is implemented in all IOS versions.
D. A command that is universal in application supporting different types of protocols.
E. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
Answer: A
24.If pressed for time, how would you go about quickly configuring a router for basic operations?
A. ROM Monitor mode
B. SETUP mode
C. Autoflash mode
D. RXBOOT mode
Answer: B
25.Characteristic such as Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are typical of which OSI layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
E. Layer 6
F. Layer 7
Answer: C
Explanation
The Transport layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include: TCP, UDP, and SPX.
26.In a routine check on the state of the network, you discover that the existing copy of the Cisco IOS is outdated and needs to be updated. Which of the following commands would you issue to replace the Cisco router IOS with the newer version?
A. Router# copy tftp flash
B. Router# copy flash run
C. Router(config)# restore flash
D. Router(config)# repair flash
E. Router> copy start flash
F. Router# copy start flash
Answer: A
27.Which type of NAT will map multiple private IP addresses to a singular registered IP address throughmaking use of different ports?
A. static NAT
B. port loading
C. overloading
D. dynamic NAT
Answer: C
28. Study the Exihibit below carefully:
RtrB#show interface serial0/0
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is PowerQUICC Serial
Internet address is 10.0.15.2/21
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 128 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation PPP, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
LCP Open
Closed: IPXCP
Listen: CCP
Open: IPCP, CDPCP
Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:52:02
Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes): total output drops: 0
Queuing strategy: weighted fair
Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops)
After considering the effects of the command output illustrated in the exhibit above, which of the following are operational on the serial link? (Select two options.)
A. CDP
B. IP
C. Compression
D. IPX
E. Multilink
F. ATX
Answer: A, B
29.One of your trainees asked you which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process. What is your response?
A. Connected subnet numbers
B. Register administrative subnet masks
C. IP address mask
D. Autonomous system number
E. Metric weights
Answer: D
30.You are a technician at RJP. After configuring your router, you find that you cannot ping the directly connected serial port of the neighboring router. The show running-config output displays the word “shutdown” for the serial interface.
Which of the following lines will be displayed in the show interface s0 output?
A. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down
B. Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is up
D. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
E. Serial 0 is administratively up, line protocol is down
F. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is up
Answer: D
31.What are the basic network services that is provided by the Cisco IOS? (Select three options.)
A. Defines topology
B. Access to network resources
C. Routing and switching functions
D. Creation of VLANs
E. Quality of service
Answer: A,B,C
32.Which of the following pieces of information is displayed by the show host command? (Select two options.)
A. The IP addresses of workstations allowed gain access to the router.
B. Permanent name-to-address mappings created using the ip host command.
C. Temporary and permanent DNS entries.
D. The names of the routers created using the hostname command.
E. The length of time a host has been connected via Telnet.
Answer: B, D
33.On three different occasions an administrator configured a router, and after testing the configuration saved it to NVRAM by issuing the copy running-config startup-config command. After each successful save the administrator issued the reload command. However, each time when the router restarted, it appeared to have the default blank configuration.
What could be the cause of such results?
A. The NVRAM is corrupted.
B. The boot system commands were omitted in the configuration.
C. The configuration register setting is incorrect.
D. The upgraded configuration incompatible with the hardware platform.
E. The upgraded IOS incompatible with the hardware.
Answer: C
34.One of your trainees wants to know which of the following statements regarding the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4 are true. What can you tell her? (Select two options.)
A. The default administrative distance is used.
B. The command is used to establish a static route.
C. The command is used to configure the routers.
D. The command is used to establish a stub network.
E. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0
Answer: A, B
35.Which of the following are the routing protocols that are capable of supporting a network that uses VLSM and route summarization? (Select three options.)
A. IGRP
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v1
D. RIP v2
E. OSPF
F. VTP
G. LSA
Answer: B, D, E
36.You have been asked to configure a default route. Which of the IOS commands mentioned below will accomplish this task? (Select two options.)
A. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36
B. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36 255.255.255.255
C. LTD# ip default-network 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36 255.255.255.255
D. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
E. LTD(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0
F. LTD(config-router)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.15.36
Answer: A, D
37.Which routing protocol would allow a network administrator scalability and VLSM support and minimize overhead if the network administrator want to merge different networks all using routers from multiple vendors.
A. VTP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IGRP
Answer: D
38.A newly assigned trainee wants to know from you what the "Inside Global" address represents in the configuration of NAT. What can you tell him?
A. The MAC address used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet.
B. The summarized address for all internal subnetted addresses.
C. A private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network.
D. A registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network.
E. A unique IP address used on an intranet.
Answer: D
39.What does the concept route aggregate mean when one talks about using variable subnet masking?
A. Deleting unusable addresses through the creation of many subnets.
B. Combining routes to multiple networks into one supernet.
C. Reclaiming unused space by means of changing the subnet size.
D. Calculating the available host addresses in the AS.
Answer: B
40.Which of the following will allow a router to respond to an ARP request that is meant for a remote host?
A. Gateway DP
B. Reverse ARP
C. proxy ARP
D. Inverse ARP
E. indirect ARP
Answer: C
41.Above is the result of the output of show running-config command. What is causing the problem when the Barrymore router is unable to make calls to the remote site?
A. The authentication password is missing from the dialer map command.
B. The switch-type must be configured.
C. Routing updates are being blocked by the applied dialer-list.
D. The dialer list only permits one protocol.
E. The name in the dialer-map must match the name in the username command.
Answer: E
42.Assuming that all OSPF routers in a particular area are configured with identical priority values, which of the following values would a router use for OSPF router ID when it does not have a loopback interface?
A. The IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface.
B. The IP address of the console management interface.
C. The highest IP address among its active interfaces.
D. The lowest IP address among its active interfaces.
E. The priority value until a loopback interface is configured.
Answer: C
43.With regard to ISDN, which of the following are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Each ISDN B channel has transmission speeds of up to 64 kbps.
B. The ISDN B channel can carry video, voice or data.
C. The ISDN B channel transmission rate varies depending on the service used.
D. The ISDN D channel transmits control information.
E. The ISDN B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types when dialer profiles are configured.
Answer: A, B, D
44.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what the purpose of Inverse ARP is.
What will your reply be?
A. It is used to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B. It is used to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. It is used to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. It is used to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. It is used to map a known MAC address to DLCI
F. It is used to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
Answer: D
45.You are the network technician at RJP. You tell your newly appointed RJP trainee that discontiguous networks in the IP addressing scheme can create problems when a routing protocol tries to identify the next hop. Your trainee now wants to know which routing protocols can be used to minimize the effects of these problems.
What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IGRP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. RIP v1
E. RIP v2
F. EIGRP
Answer: C, E, F
46.You are the network engineer at RJP. Your RJP trainee Tess wants to know which parameter must be supplied when you initialize the IGRP routing process.
What should you tell her?
A. The wild card mask
B. The IP address
C. The IP address mask
D. The metric weights
E. The Autonomous System number
Answer: E
47.You are the network administrator at RJP. From your workstation you telnet to a router VTY line. You perform a number of configurations on the router. You now want to terminate the telnet connection. What command must you issue to terminate the Telnet connection?
A. close
B. disable
C. disconnect
D. suspend
E. exit
Answer: C
48.You are the network administrator at RJP. The RIP routing protocol is being used on the RJP network. RIP is configured with default settings and equal cost load balancing. The RJP network has six paths with the same metric and administrative distance for a single destination. Which of the six paths will RIP use to reach the destination?
A. Only the first two paths that are learned.
B. Four of the paths.
C. All six routes in a routed robin fashion.
D. The oldest two paths in the routing table.
E. The first path learned to the destination network.
Answer: E
49.You are the network administrator at RJP. You want to configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table on router RJP1. Which of the following commands can you issue?
A. RJP1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. RJP1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. RJP1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
D. RJP1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. RJP1(config)# ip route any any e0
Answer: D
50.You are the network administrator at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what the default administrative distance of OSPF routing protocol is. What will your reply be?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 170
Answer: C
51.You are the network administrator at RJP. You must configure a router for load balancing across 4 unequal cost paths on the RJP network.
Which of the following routing protocols can you use? (Choose two.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
F. VLSM
Answer: C, D
52.You are the network administrator at RJP. RJP users report that they cannot access resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of router RJP1. You want to view the current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer 2 status of this interface. Which of the following commands could you use? (Choose three.)
A. RJP1# show version
B. RJP1# show protocols
C. RJP1# show interfaces
D. RJP1# show controllers
E. RJP1# show ip interface
F. RJP1# show startup-config
Answer: C, D, E
53.Which of the following routing protocols minimize the effects of the problems created by discontiguous networks? (Choose three.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. EIGRP
D. IGRP
E. OSPF
F. VLSM
Answer: B, C, E
54.With regard to classless routing protocols, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Discontiguous subnets are not allowed.
B. Variable length subnet masks are allowed.
C. RIP v1 is a classless routing protocol.
D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system.
E. RIP v2 supports classless routing.
Answer: B, E
55.You are the network administrator at RJP. You issue the show ip route command on a router during routine maintenance. The output from the show ip route command indicates a network that is advertised by both RIP and IGRP as an IGRP route. Your RJP assistant wants to know why the RIP route to the network is not used in the routing table.
What will your reply be?
A. IGRP has a faster update timer.
B. IGRP has a lower administrative distance.
C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route.
D. The IGRP route has fewer hops.
E. The RIP path has a routing loop.
Answer: B
56.You are the network administrator at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what router functions are.
What will your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Answer: A, C, F
57.Which of the following are general recommendations for the placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
A. You should place standard ACLS as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied.
B. You should place extended ACLS as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied.
C. You should place standard ACLS as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied.
D. You should place extended ACLS should be places as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied.
Answer: B, C
58.You are the network technician at RJP. Two routers on the RJP network, Router RJP1 and Router RJP2 are configured with RIP only. Router RJP1 receives a routing update with a higher cost path to a remote network that is already in its routing table. What will Router RJP1 do?
A. It will ignore the update and take no further action.
B. It will add the update information to its routing table.
C. It will replace the existing routing table entry with the update information.
D. It will delete the existing routing table and will send out hello packets to rebuild the routing table.
Answer: A
59.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know which command will show the LMI traffic statistics.
What would your reply be?
A. Show interface lmi
B. Show frame-relay lmi
C. Show interface frame-relay
D. Debug frame-relay interface.
Answer: B
60.You are a technician at RJP. Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know which command will set the bandwidth of serial 0 to 56kbps.
What would your reply be?
A. Bandwidth 56000
B. Bandwidth 56000000
C. Bandwidth 56
D. Bandwidth 56kbps
Answer: C
61.Which command displays all the commands in the history buffer?
A. Show history
B. Show buffers
C. Show typed commands
D. Show terminal buffer
Answer: A
62.IGRP sends a complete routing table to its neighbors how often by default?
A. every 5 minutes
B. every 90 seconds
C. every 60 seconds
D. every 30 seconds
Answer: B
63.Which of the following is not a distance-vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. IPX RIP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: D
64.You are a technician at RJP. You are working within the Cisco IOS. Which of the following functions does the up arrow key provide?
A. Recalls the previous command line
B. Moves the cursor one line up
C. Redisplays the current command line
D. Capitalizes the command line
Answer: A
65.Which command must be entered when connecting two routers WITHOUT external DCE devices?
A. serial up
B. clockrate
C. clock rate
D. dce rate
E. dte rate
Answer: C
66.Which of the following statements regarding routed and routing protocols are true? (Select 2 choices)
A. A routed protocol is assigned to an interface and determines the method of packet delivery
B. A routing protocol determines the path of the packet through a network
C. A routed protocol determines the path of the packet through a network
D. A routing protocol operates at the transport layer of the OSI model
E. A routed protocol updates the routing table of a router
Answer: A, B
67.When powering up a router, which of the following types of memory normally stores the start-up configuration?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. FLASH
D. NVRAM
Answer: D
68.You are a network technician at RJP. You have just finished configuring a router on the RJP network. The changes have been successfully entered and everything is working properly. You then save your changes and reboot the router. None of your changes are active after the reboot. However, when you look at the contents of the startup config, your changes are there.
Which of the following indicates the source of the problem?
A. Hardware failure in NVRAM prevents the router from loading the config
B. Startup-config in flash is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
C. Router configuration-register set to bypass startup configuration
D. Startup-config in NVRAM is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
Answer: C
69.Which of the following commands should be used to display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received by the router?
A. Show ip protocols
B. Show ip route rip
C. Debug ip rip
D. Debug ip updates
E. Debug ip transactions
Answer: C
70.You are the network administrator at RJP.com. You have just configured a new router that you attached to the RJP network. You ping the directly connected serial port of the directly neighboring router. The ping is unsuccessful. The show running-config output displays the word “shutdown” for the serial interface.
Which of the following lines will be displayed in the show interface s0 output?
A. Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down
B. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down
C. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is up
D. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
E. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is up
F. Serial 0 is administratively up, line protocol is down
Answer: D
71.Which symbol in the router prompt indicates you are in the privileged mode?
A. >
B. #
C. ?
D. *
Answer: B
Frame Relay
1. You have a total of five routers. ________ circuits are required to fully mesh the network, where every router needs ___________ interfaces.
A. 5, 5
B. 8, 4
C. 10, 5
D. 10, 4
Answer: D
Use the (N*(N – 1)/2) formula for the number of circuits. You need a total of ten circuits and four interfaces on each router.
A has the wrong number of circuits and interfaces. B has the wrong number of circuits.
C has the wrong number of interfaces.
2. A ___________ is similar to a telephone circuit-switched connection.
A. PVC
B. SVC
Answer: B
An SVC is similar to a telephone circuit-switched connection.
A is similar to a leased line.
3. You have a 24-channel T1 connection to your router. How many VCs does this T1 support?
A. 1
B. 24
C. No limit
Answer: C
The number of VCs is not tied to any physical properties of a connection type. Remember that VCs are logical connections.
A would be true if this were a leased line. B refers to the number of time slots in a T1 and has no effect on the number of VCs a connection can support.
4. _________ defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
A. DLCI
B. CIR
C. LMI
D. PMI
Answer: C
The local management interface (LMI) defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
A defines the local address of a VC. B defines the average traffic rate for a VC. D is a nonexistent acronym.
5. The address of a Frame Relay VC is called a ___________.
A. Data link layer connection identifier
B. Data layer connection index
C. Data link connection index
D. Data link connection identifier
Answer: D
The address of a Frame Relay VC is called a data link connection identifier (DLCI).
A and C include the term layer. B and C use the term index.
6. Frames sent above the __________ limit will have their _________ bit set.
A. CIR, DE
B. BC, DE
C. BC, FECN
D. CIR, FECN
Answer: B
Frames sent above the BC limit will have their DE bit set.
A and D are incorrect because frames sent between CIR and BC are okay. C and D specify FECN, which is used for flow control.
7. When a carrier experiences congestion, it marks the _______ bit in the header of the Frame Relay frame.
A. CIR
B. DE
C. BECN
D. FECN
Answer: D
When a carrier experiences congestion, it marks the FECN bit in the header of the Frame Relay frame.
A specifies the average rate of a VC. B is used to mark frames that exceed their allowable rate. C is marked by the destination device to indicate congestion, and is sent to the source device.
8. Annex A is which LMI standard?
A. Cisco
B. ITU-T Q.933
C. ANSI
Answer: B
The LMI type Annex A is defined by ITU-T Q.933.
A is the Gang of Four. C is Annex D.
9. Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries every _______ seconds and a full status update every _________ seconds.
A. 10, 60
B. 10, 6
C. 60, 300
D. 15, 60
Answer: A
Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries every 10 seconds and a full status update every 60 seconds.
B specifies the wrong update interval for the full update message. C has wrong values for both timers. D has a wrong value for the status enquiry timer.
10. Enter the router command to have the serial interface use a Frame Relay RFC 1490 frame type: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
ENCAPSULATION FRAME-RELAY IETF
11. Enter the router command to set the LMI type to ITU-T Annex A: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
FRAME-RELAY LMI-TYPE Q933A
12. When using the show interfaces command, which Frame Relay information can you not see?
A. The DLCI number used for LMI
B. The number of LMIs sent and received
C. Statuses of PVCs
D. The LMI type
Answer: C
When using the show interfaces command, you cannot see the statuses of the PVCs—you need to use the show frame-relay pvc command.
A, B, and D can be seen in the output of this command.
13. Which Frame Relay command is used to manually resolve addresses?
A. frame-relay interface-dlci
B. frame-relay map
C. frame-relay resolve
D. frame-relay lmi-type
Answer: B
The frame-relay map command is used to manually resolve layer-3 addresses to DLCIs.
A associates a DLCI to a subinterface. C is a nonexistent command. D hard-codes the LMI type for the physical serial interface.
14. If you see a VC with an inactive status, this indicates ____________.
A. The connection between both Frame Relay DTEs is up and operational.
B. The connection between your Frame Relay DTE and DCE is up and operational, but there is something wrong with connection between your connected Frame Relay switch and the destination DTE.
C. You are not receiving any LMI messages from the Frame Relay switch. Nonbroadcast Multiaccess
Answer: B
If you see a VC with an inactive status, this indicates that the connection between your Frame Relay DTE and DCE is up and operational, but there is something wrong with connection between your connected Frame Relay switch and the destination DTE.
A is an active VC. C is a deleted VC.
15. ________ topologies in NBMA environments do not have problems with split horizon.
A. Partially meshed
B. Fully meshed
C. Hub and spoke
D. Star
Answer: B
Fully meshed topologies in NBMA environments do not have problems with split horizon.
A, C, and D have problems with split horizon.
16. Enter the router command to create a multipoint subinterface on serial0 with a subinterface number of 5: __________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
INTERFACE SERIAL 0.5 MULTIPOINT
17. Enter the router command to associate DLCI 500 with a subinterface: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
FRAME-RELAY INTERFACE-DLCI 500
A. 5, 5
B. 8, 4
C. 10, 5
D. 10, 4
Answer: D
Use the (N*(N – 1)/2) formula for the number of circuits. You need a total of ten circuits and four interfaces on each router.
A has the wrong number of circuits and interfaces. B has the wrong number of circuits.
C has the wrong number of interfaces.
2. A ___________ is similar to a telephone circuit-switched connection.
A. PVC
B. SVC
Answer: B
An SVC is similar to a telephone circuit-switched connection.
A is similar to a leased line.
3. You have a 24-channel T1 connection to your router. How many VCs does this T1 support?
A. 1
B. 24
C. No limit
Answer: C
The number of VCs is not tied to any physical properties of a connection type. Remember that VCs are logical connections.
A would be true if this were a leased line. B refers to the number of time slots in a T1 and has no effect on the number of VCs a connection can support.
4. _________ defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
A. DLCI
B. CIR
C. LMI
D. PMI
Answer: C
The local management interface (LMI) defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
A defines the local address of a VC. B defines the average traffic rate for a VC. D is a nonexistent acronym.
5. The address of a Frame Relay VC is called a ___________.
A. Data link layer connection identifier
B. Data layer connection index
C. Data link connection index
D. Data link connection identifier
Answer: D
The address of a Frame Relay VC is called a data link connection identifier (DLCI).
A and C include the term layer. B and C use the term index.
6. Frames sent above the __________ limit will have their _________ bit set.
A. CIR, DE
B. BC, DE
C. BC, FECN
D. CIR, FECN
Answer: B
Frames sent above the BC limit will have their DE bit set.
A and D are incorrect because frames sent between CIR and BC are okay. C and D specify FECN, which is used for flow control.
7. When a carrier experiences congestion, it marks the _______ bit in the header of the Frame Relay frame.
A. CIR
B. DE
C. BECN
D. FECN
Answer: D
When a carrier experiences congestion, it marks the FECN bit in the header of the Frame Relay frame.
A specifies the average rate of a VC. B is used to mark frames that exceed their allowable rate. C is marked by the destination device to indicate congestion, and is sent to the source device.
8. Annex A is which LMI standard?
A. Cisco
B. ITU-T Q.933
C. ANSI
Answer: B
The LMI type Annex A is defined by ITU-T Q.933.
A is the Gang of Four. C is Annex D.
9. Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries every _______ seconds and a full status update every _________ seconds.
A. 10, 60
B. 10, 6
C. 60, 300
D. 15, 60
Answer: A
Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries every 10 seconds and a full status update every 60 seconds.
B specifies the wrong update interval for the full update message. C has wrong values for both timers. D has a wrong value for the status enquiry timer.
10. Enter the router command to have the serial interface use a Frame Relay RFC 1490 frame type: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
ENCAPSULATION FRAME-RELAY IETF
11. Enter the router command to set the LMI type to ITU-T Annex A: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
FRAME-RELAY LMI-TYPE Q933A
12. When using the show interfaces command, which Frame Relay information can you not see?
A. The DLCI number used for LMI
B. The number of LMIs sent and received
C. Statuses of PVCs
D. The LMI type
Answer: C
When using the show interfaces command, you cannot see the statuses of the PVCs—you need to use the show frame-relay pvc command.
A, B, and D can be seen in the output of this command.
13. Which Frame Relay command is used to manually resolve addresses?
A. frame-relay interface-dlci
B. frame-relay map
C. frame-relay resolve
D. frame-relay lmi-type
Answer: B
The frame-relay map command is used to manually resolve layer-3 addresses to DLCIs.
A associates a DLCI to a subinterface. C is a nonexistent command. D hard-codes the LMI type for the physical serial interface.
14. If you see a VC with an inactive status, this indicates ____________.
A. The connection between both Frame Relay DTEs is up and operational.
B. The connection between your Frame Relay DTE and DCE is up and operational, but there is something wrong with connection between your connected Frame Relay switch and the destination DTE.
C. You are not receiving any LMI messages from the Frame Relay switch. Nonbroadcast Multiaccess
Answer: B
If you see a VC with an inactive status, this indicates that the connection between your Frame Relay DTE and DCE is up and operational, but there is something wrong with connection between your connected Frame Relay switch and the destination DTE.
A is an active VC. C is a deleted VC.
15. ________ topologies in NBMA environments do not have problems with split horizon.
A. Partially meshed
B. Fully meshed
C. Hub and spoke
D. Star
Answer: B
Fully meshed topologies in NBMA environments do not have problems with split horizon.
A, C, and D have problems with split horizon.
16. Enter the router command to create a multipoint subinterface on serial0 with a subinterface number of 5: __________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
INTERFACE SERIAL 0.5 MULTIPOINT
17. Enter the router command to associate DLCI 500 with a subinterface: ____________.
A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER
Answer: A
FRAME-RELAY INTERFACE-DLCI 500
EIGRP
1.Which of the following EIGRP route entries would be described as a feasible successor?
A. A primary route, stored in the routing table
B. A backup route, stored in the routing table
C. A backup route, stored in the topology table
D. A primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
2.Which of the following are features of the routing protocol EIGRP? (Select two options.)
A. Has a maximum hop count of 25
B. Can differentiate between internal and external routes
C. Uses a 32-bit metric
D. Can maintain only one routing table
E. Need all networks to use the same subnet mask
F. Supports only one routed protocol
Answer: B, C
3.You are the network administrator. Your aim is to support a multi-protocol network that includes IP, AppleTalk and IPX. Which routing protocol can you use that will achieve this aim?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v2
D. IGRP
E. RIP v1
Answer: B
4.You are the network administrator at RJP. You are troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on Router RJP1. You want to check the IP addresses as well as the retransmit interval and the queue counts for the devices which have established an adjacency with Router RJP1. What command should you issue?
A. RJP1#show ip eigrp adjacency
B. RJP1#show ip eigrp topology
C. RJP1#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. RJP1#show ip eigrp neigbors
Answer: D
5.When enabling EIGRP routing, what parameters must you apply?
A. broadcast address, and AS number
B. network number and AS number
C. eigrp routing, network number, and passive interface
D. eigrp routing, network number, and AS
Answer: D
A. A primary route, stored in the routing table
B. A backup route, stored in the routing table
C. A backup route, stored in the topology table
D. A primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
2.Which of the following are features of the routing protocol EIGRP? (Select two options.)
A. Has a maximum hop count of 25
B. Can differentiate between internal and external routes
C. Uses a 32-bit metric
D. Can maintain only one routing table
E. Need all networks to use the same subnet mask
F. Supports only one routed protocol
Answer: B, C
3.You are the network administrator. Your aim is to support a multi-protocol network that includes IP, AppleTalk and IPX. Which routing protocol can you use that will achieve this aim?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v2
D. IGRP
E. RIP v1
Answer: B
4.You are the network administrator at RJP. You are troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on Router RJP1. You want to check the IP addresses as well as the retransmit interval and the queue counts for the devices which have established an adjacency with Router RJP1. What command should you issue?
A. RJP1#show ip eigrp adjacency
B. RJP1#show ip eigrp topology
C. RJP1#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. RJP1#show ip eigrp neigbors
Answer: D
5.When enabling EIGRP routing, what parameters must you apply?
A. broadcast address, and AS number
B. network number and AS number
C. eigrp routing, network number, and passive interface
D. eigrp routing, network number, and AS
Answer: D
Bridging and Switching
1. Which of the following is true concerning bridges?
A. They switch frames in hardware.
B. They support half- and full-duplexing.
C. They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.
D. They do only store-and-forward switching.
Answer: D
Bridges support only the store-and-forward switching method.
A and B are done by switches, not bridges. C is incorrect because each port on a bridge or switch is a separate collision domain.
2. With _________ switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame.
A. Store-and-forward
B. Cut-through
C. Fragment-free
D. Runtless
Answer: B
With cut-through switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame. With A, the entire frame is read and the CRC is checked before further processing. C and
D are the same thing—once the first 64 bytes of the frame are read, the switch begins to forward it.
3. Which of the following is true concerning full-duplexing?
A. It can either send or receive frames, but not both simultaneously.
B. It can be used with hubs.
C. It can be used with 10Base5 cabling.
D. It uses point-to-point connections.
Answer: D
Full duplex connections require point-to-point connections and cannot involve hubs.
A, B, and C are true of half-duplex connections. Functions of Bridging and Switching
4. Which is not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device?
A. Learning
B. Forwarding
C. Listening
D. Removing loops
Answer: C
Listening is a port state, not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device.
A, B, and D are the three main functions of a layer-2 device.
5. During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a(n) _________ table.
A. IP address
B. learning
C. CAM
D. memory
Answer: C
During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a CAM table—another term is port address table.
A, B and D are not terms used to describe this table.
6. Which type of traffic is sent to a group of devices?
A. Multicast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Groupcast
Answer: A
Multicast traffic is sent to a group of devices.
B is sent to a single device, and C is sent to all devices. D is a nonexistent traffic type.
7. Which type of traffic is not flooded?
A. Multicast
B. Known unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Unknown unicast
Answer: B
Unicast traffic is not flooded if the destination MAC address is in the CAM table.
A, C, and D traffic is always flooded, to maintain the transparency of the layer-2 device.
8. BPDU stands for ____________.
A. Bridge Protocol Description Unicast
B. Bridge Protocol Data Unit
C. Bridge Protocol Description Unit
D. Bridge Protocol Data Unicast
Answer: B
BPDU stands for Bridge Protocol Data Unit.
A and C are incorrect because of the word description, and the fact that BPDUs use multicasts, which also makes D incorrect.
9. BPDUs are generated every __________ seconds.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
2
BPDUs are generated every two seconds.
10. The root switch is the one elected with the __________ __________.
A. Lowest MAC address
B. Highest MAC address
C. Lowest switch ID
D. Highest switch ID
Answer: C
The switch with the lowest switch ID is elected as the root switch.
A and D are incorrect because the decision is based on the switch ID, which includes the switch’s priority and MAC address. D is incorrect because it is the lowest, not the highest.
11. The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a __________.
A. Root port
B. Alternate port
C. Backup port
D. Designated port
Answer: D
The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a designated port.
A is the port that the switch uses to reach the root. B is used in RSTP and is a secondary root port, and C is used in RSTP and is a secondary designated port.
12. Which is true concerning a port in a listening state? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. It remains there for 15 seconds.
B. It forwards BPDUs and builds the CAM table.
C. It remains there for 20 seconds.
D. It forwards BPDUs.
Answer: A
A and D. In a listening state, the port processes and forwards BPDUs. A port stays in the listening state for 15 seconds.
B occurs in the learning state. C is the time period for the blocking state.
13. Enter the 1900 switch command to set an interface to autosense the duplexing: _________.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
DUPLEX AUTO
Use the duplex auto command on the interface to set duplexing to autosensing.
14. Enter the switch command to view the CAM table: ___________.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
SHOW MAC-ADDRESS-TABLE
Use the show mac-address-table command to view the CAM table on either switch.
15. Which 1900 command enables port security?
A. port security
B. switchport security
C. port secure
D. switchport port-security
Answer: C
The port secure command enables port security on a 1900 switch.
D is used on the 2950 switch. A and B are nonexistent commands.
A. They switch frames in hardware.
B. They support half- and full-duplexing.
C. They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.
D. They do only store-and-forward switching.
Answer: D
Bridges support only the store-and-forward switching method.
A and B are done by switches, not bridges. C is incorrect because each port on a bridge or switch is a separate collision domain.
2. With _________ switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame.
A. Store-and-forward
B. Cut-through
C. Fragment-free
D. Runtless
Answer: B
With cut-through switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame. With A, the entire frame is read and the CRC is checked before further processing. C and
D are the same thing—once the first 64 bytes of the frame are read, the switch begins to forward it.
3. Which of the following is true concerning full-duplexing?
A. It can either send or receive frames, but not both simultaneously.
B. It can be used with hubs.
C. It can be used with 10Base5 cabling.
D. It uses point-to-point connections.
Answer: D
Full duplex connections require point-to-point connections and cannot involve hubs.
A, B, and C are true of half-duplex connections. Functions of Bridging and Switching
4. Which is not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device?
A. Learning
B. Forwarding
C. Listening
D. Removing loops
Answer: C
Listening is a port state, not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device.
A, B, and D are the three main functions of a layer-2 device.
5. During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a(n) _________ table.
A. IP address
B. learning
C. CAM
D. memory
Answer: C
During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a CAM table—another term is port address table.
A, B and D are not terms used to describe this table.
6. Which type of traffic is sent to a group of devices?
A. Multicast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Groupcast
Answer: A
Multicast traffic is sent to a group of devices.
B is sent to a single device, and C is sent to all devices. D is a nonexistent traffic type.
7. Which type of traffic is not flooded?
A. Multicast
B. Known unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Unknown unicast
Answer: B
Unicast traffic is not flooded if the destination MAC address is in the CAM table.
A, C, and D traffic is always flooded, to maintain the transparency of the layer-2 device.
8. BPDU stands for ____________.
A. Bridge Protocol Description Unicast
B. Bridge Protocol Data Unit
C. Bridge Protocol Description Unit
D. Bridge Protocol Data Unicast
Answer: B
BPDU stands for Bridge Protocol Data Unit.
A and C are incorrect because of the word description, and the fact that BPDUs use multicasts, which also makes D incorrect.
9. BPDUs are generated every __________ seconds.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
2
BPDUs are generated every two seconds.
10. The root switch is the one elected with the __________ __________.
A. Lowest MAC address
B. Highest MAC address
C. Lowest switch ID
D. Highest switch ID
Answer: C
The switch with the lowest switch ID is elected as the root switch.
A and D are incorrect because the decision is based on the switch ID, which includes the switch’s priority and MAC address. D is incorrect because it is the lowest, not the highest.
11. The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a __________.
A. Root port
B. Alternate port
C. Backup port
D. Designated port
Answer: D
The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a designated port.
A is the port that the switch uses to reach the root. B is used in RSTP and is a secondary root port, and C is used in RSTP and is a secondary designated port.
12. Which is true concerning a port in a listening state? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. It remains there for 15 seconds.
B. It forwards BPDUs and builds the CAM table.
C. It remains there for 20 seconds.
D. It forwards BPDUs.
Answer: A
A and D. In a listening state, the port processes and forwards BPDUs. A port stays in the listening state for 15 seconds.
B occurs in the learning state. C is the time period for the blocking state.
13. Enter the 1900 switch command to set an interface to autosense the duplexing: _________.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
DUPLEX AUTO
Use the duplex auto command on the interface to set duplexing to autosensing.
14. Enter the switch command to view the CAM table: ___________.
A. CLICK HERE
Answer: A
SHOW MAC-ADDRESS-TABLE
Use the show mac-address-table command to view the CAM table on either switch.
15. Which 1900 command enables port security?
A. port security
B. switchport security
C. port secure
D. switchport port-security
Answer: C
The port secure command enables port security on a 1900 switch.
D is used on the 2950 switch. A and B are nonexistent commands.
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